Exam HD0-100 questions and answers

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Exam Code: HD0-100
Exam Name: HDI (Help Desk Analyst (HDA) )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer calls with a printing problem. You start the troubleshooting process by
asking some simple questions. The customer admits that this is his first time using a
computer.
Which three questions should be used to obtain necessary information to solve the
problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ask the customer if he is the only one who can print to this server
B. Ask the customer if a start button or disk icon appears on the screen
C. Ask the customer if he has experienced any problems recently with any other
applications
D. Guide the customer through checking the printer connection and making sure the
power is turned on
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.2 What is a key benefit of a knowledge-base system?
A. Increase call volume
B. Saves time and money
C. Decreases network traffic
D. Requires lower maintance
Answer: B

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NO.3 Who is responsible for maintaining a working environment conductive to effective
inter-departmental relationships.
A. Everyone
B. Human resources
C. Department managers
D. Executive management
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two are characteristics of unsuccessful teams? (Choose two.)
A. Independence
B. Lack objectives
C. Lack of ownership
D. Good team morale
Answer: B, C

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NO.5 Which metric indicates how often A customer may need a follow-up call to achieve
resolution?
A. Capture rate
B. Abandon rate
C. Call return rate
D. First call resolution rate
Answer: D

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NO.6 What should you do to assess A customer level of knowledge?
A. Ask open questions
B. Ask closed questions
C. Provide more detailed explanations
D. Assume the customer has a basic level of knowledge
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three media can be used to conduct surveys? (Choose three.)
A. E-mail
B. The Internet
C. A suggestion box
D. Personal interviews
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.8 Which two are typically the fastest methods to send a message to all help desk
personnel? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice mail
C. Short text messaging
D. Broadcast messaging
Answer: A, C

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NO.9 For which two reasons is it important to have documented processes and
procedures? (Choose two.)
A. Ensures consistent service
B. Identifies areas out of policy
C. Promotes adherence to policies
D. Justification for not meeting customer expectations
Answer: A, C

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NO.10 What is the key benefit of a positive work environment?
A. Diversification of skill sets is minimized
B. Rapport among team members is increased
C. The need for recognition of individual effort is minimized
D. Management involvement is separated from individual involvement
Answer: D

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NO.11 What two considerations need to be made when sharing workspace? (Choose two.)
A. Maintain a clean environment
B. Discretion and courtesy when decorating
C. Share only with persons with similar likes/dislikes
D. None, each person needs to take care of it themselves
Answer: A, B

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NO.12 Which two are the primary purpose of an annual (periodic) survey? (Choose two.)
A. Determine management bonuses
B. Identify changes to products, services and processes
C. Measure performance of individual analysts at the help desk
D. Evaluate customer satisfaction with products, services and personnel
Answer: B, D

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NO.13 Which three approached help create a positive business reputation? (Choose three.)
A. When you hear complaints about your organization, change the subject
B. Have a good attitude and never speak negatively about you organization
C. See what you can do to assist any co-worker who is unhappy or experiencing
problems
D. Try to have a positive and memorable effect on every person you communicate with
each day
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.14 Which two are characteristics of an organization with good inter-departmental
relationships? (Choose two.)
A. High employee morale
B. Low employee turnover
C. Low superior-to-subordinate interaction
D. Low turnover rate between organisations
Answer: A, B

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NO.15 Which two techniques are used to match a caller's style? (Choose two.)
A. Style
B. Restating
C. Vocabulary
D. Paraphrasing
Answer: A, C

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NO.16 A customer calls the support centre and describes a problem. The analyst is not
certain what the problem is. What is the appropriate strategy for eliciting the
information a second time?
A. Begin troubleshooting
B. Transfer the call to a more experienced analyst
C. Ask the customer to repeat the problem back to you
D. Repeat back to the customer what you thought you heard
Answer: D

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NO.17 Companies typically restrict access to which three types of data? (Choose three.)
A. Office location
B. Personnel records
C. Payroll information
D. Proprietary information
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.18 You have little or no expertise with a product. While speaking in a confident tone,
what should you do to provide effective support?
A. Escalate to a manager to reassign the call
B. Determine priority/severity and collect/document the appropriate information
C. Set a call back time and tell the customer you will review the call with an expert
D. Inform the customer of the product limitations you are aware of, but assure them they
will receive support
Answer: B

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NO.19 DRAG DROP
Place the network terms that are most related to one another and that provide
similar functionality next to each other.
Answer: .

NO.20 Which question allows you to determine whether or not your customer is logged on
to the network?
A. What is your login ID?
B. Can you access e-mail?
C. Are you logged on to the network?
D. Which drives are displayed on your computer?
Answer: D

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Exam Code: GB0-323
Exam Name: H3C (Constructing Enterprise-level Switching Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 300 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 GARP
A. Switch VLAN
B. Switch
C. VLAN
D. VLAN
Answer: ABCD

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NO.2 802.1D Disabled
A.
B. BPDU
C. BPDU
D. BPDU
E. BPDU
Answer: A

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NO.3 A. RSTP STP
B. MSTP VLAN
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.4 VRRP
A. VRRP
B. VRRP HSRP
C. VRRP
D. VRRP IP PC
Answer: C

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NO.5 A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. IGMP
Answer: D

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NO.6 100M/Full
A. 100M/Full
B. 100M/Half
C. 10M/Full
D. 10M/Half
Answer: B

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NO.7 IGMP
IP
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.8 Quidway
A. console
B. Xmodem
C. telnet
D. modem
Answer: B

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NO.9 PC1 PC2 PC3 Quidway SwitchA E0/1 E0/2
E0/3 VLAN10
20 30 G1/1 VLAN100 PC
A. E0/1 Access PVID VLAN 10
B. E0/2 Hybrid Untagged VLAN ID 100 Tagged VLAN ID 10
C. E0/2 Hybrid Untagged VLAN ID 20 100 Tagged VLAN ID none
D. G1/1 Hybrid Untagged VLAN ID 10 20 30 Tagged VLAN ID 100
Answer: C

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NO.10 STP Spanning Tree Protocal
A.
B.
C. RSTP
D. SSTP
Answer: AB

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NO.11 VRRP
A. VRRP MD5
B. VRRP
C. VRRP VRRP 1-255
D. VRRP IP PC
Answer: AC

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NO.12 STP RSTP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.13 Quidway S
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.14 A. GVRP
B. GMRP
C. IGMP
D. PIM
Answer: C

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NO.15 STP
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.16 STP Max Age
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.17 VRRP
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.9
C. 224.0.0.18
D. 224.0.0.28
Answer: C

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NO.18 A. STP
B. MSTP
C. RSTP
D. PPTP
Answer: D

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NO.19 CSMA/CD
A. CDMA
B. CSMA/CD /
C. HUB
D.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Quidway VRRP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ACD

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NO.21 IEEE802.3x
PAUSE MAC
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 96
Answer: C

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NO.22 PIM Hello
A. PIM 224.0.0.13 Hello PIM
B. Hello DR
C. IGMP
D. IGMP V1 DR(IP ) IGMP V1
Answer: ABD

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NO.23 A. 223.0.0.1
B. IGMP
C. PIM-DM RP
D.
Answer: B

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NO.24 RSTP
A. RSTP
B. RSTP
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.25 IEEE 802.1P VLAN VLAN
VLAN VLAN
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.26 802.1x
A. 802.1x
B.
C.
D. EAPOL
Answer: BC

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NO.27 IGMP
A. igmp timer query seconds
B. igmp timer query seconds
C. igmp max-response-time seconds
D. igmp timer other-querier-present seconds
Answer: ACD

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NO.28 VLAN
A. IP
B.
C. MAC
D.
Answer: ACD

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NO.29 GARP GVRP GMRP
A.
B. GVRP GMRP GARP
C. GVRP 802.1Q VLAN
D. GVRP GVRP
Answer: BD

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NO.30 802.1Q VLAN tag
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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Exam Code: FCNSP
Exam Name: Fortinet (Fortinet Certified Network Security Professional (FCNSP v4.2))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 An administrator is examining the attack logs and notices the following entry:
attack_id=100663402 src=192.168.0.79 dst=64.64.64.64 src_port=57133 dst_port=80 interface=port3
src_int=n/a dst_int=n/a status=dropped proto=6 service=http msg="TCP session over limit
Based solely upon this log message, which of the following statements is correct?
A.This attack was blocked by the HTTP protocol decoder.
B.This attack was caught by the DoS sensor.
C.This attack was launched against the FortiGate unit itself rather than a host behind the FortiGate unit.
D.The number of concurrent connections to destination IP address 64.64.64.64 has exceeded the
configured threshold.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When viewing the Banned User tab in User Monitor in Web Config, the administrator notes the entry
illustrated in the exhibit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this entry?
A.The entry displays a ban that has been added as a result of traffic triggering a configured DLP rule.
B.The entry displays a ban that was triggered by HTTP traffic matching an IPS signature. This client is
banned from receiving or sending any traffic through the FortiGate.
C.The entry displays a quarantine, which could have been added by either IPS or DLP.
D.This entry displays a ban entry that was added manually by the administrator on Dec 24th.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The transfer of encrypted files or the use of encrypted protocols between users and servers on the
internet can frustrate the efforts of administrators attempting to monitor traffic passing through the
FortiGate unit and ensuring user compliance to corporate rules.
Which of the following items will allow the administrator to control the transfer of encrypted data through
the FortiGate unit?
A.Encrypted protocols can be scanned through the use of the SSL proxy.
B.DLP rules can be used to block the transmission of encrypted files.
C.Firewall authentication can be enabled in the firewall policy, preventing the use of encrypted
communications channels.
D.Application control can be used to monitor the use of encrypted protocols; alerts can be sent to the
administrator through email when the use of encrypted protocols is attempted.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 A DLP rule with an action of Exempt has been matched against traffic passing through the FortiGate
unit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding how this transaction will be handled by the
FortiGate unit?
A.Any other matched DLP rules will be ignored with the exception of Archiving.
B.Any other matched DLP rules are ignored.
C.The traffic matching the DLP rule will bypass antivirus scanning.
D.The client IP address will be added to a white list.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are correct regarding the antivirus scanning function on the FortiGate
unit?
A.Antivirus scanning can be configured to block certain file types and patterns.
B.Antivirus scanning provides end-to-end virus protection for client workstations.
C.Antivirus scanning provides virus protection for the HTTP, Telnet, SMTP, and FTP protocols.
D.Antivirus scanning supports banned word checking.
E.Antivirus scanning supports grayware protection.
Answer:AE

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NO.6 Which part of an email message exchange is not inspected by the POP3 and IMAP proxies?
A.TCP connection
B.Protocol commands
C.Message headers
D.Message body
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following describes the best custom signature for detecting the use of the word "Fortinet" in
chat applications.?
The sample packet trace illustrated in the exhibit provides details on the packet that requires detection.
A.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --no_case; )
B.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "fortinet"; --no_case; )
C.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --within 20;
--no_case; )
D.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --within
20; )
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which of the following describes the difference between the ban and quarantine actions?
A.A ban action prevents future transactions using the same protocol which triggered the ban. A qarantine
action blocks all future transactions, regardless of the protocol.
B.A ban action blocks the transaction. A quarantine action archives the data.
C.A ban action has a finite duration. A quarantine action must be removed by an administrator.
D.A ban action is used for known users. A quarantine action is used for unknown users.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following items are considered to be advantages of using the application control features
on the FortiGate unit?
A.Application control provides application detection regardless of the port used by the application.
B.Application control allows session-ttl to be customized for specific application types.
C.Application control allows custom application types to be added in a similar way to adding custom IPS
signatures.
D.Application control allows an administrator to check which applications are installed on workstations
attempting to access the network.
Answer: AB

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NO.10 Based on the web filtering configuration illustrated in the exhibit, which one of the following statements
is not a reasonable conclusion?
A.Users can access both the www.google.com site and the www.fortinet.com site.
B.When a user attempts to access the www.google.com site, the FortiGate unit will not perform web
filtering on the content of that site.
C.When a user attempts to access the www.fortinet.com site, any remaining web filtering will be
bypassed.
D.Downloaded content from www.google.com will be scanned for viruses if antivirus is enabled.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-100
Exam Name: EXIN (ITIL foundation certificate in it service management(exin))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. ensuring the smooth running of the process
B. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
C. channeling data to Problem Management
D. following up on Incidents
Answer:A

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NO.2 Certain data is needed to describe an ITIL?process. This includes the objectives and the output. What
else is required?
A. activities
B. authorisations
C. environment
D. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Answer:A

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NO.3 One of the activities of Capacity Management involves making evaluations and predictions regarding
the hardware that is required to run a new or modified application. The predictions include data about the
performance levels that can be expected, the requisite hardware and the costs. Which of the activities of
Capacity Management is responsible for this?
A. Application Sizing
B. Capacity Planning
C. Monitoring
D. Tuning
Answer:A

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NO.4 When an IT service provider adopts and adapts ITIL?best practices, which of the following is the
greatest benefit?
A. Work is carried out using a project-oriented approach.
B. There is a central Service Desk.
C. The organization is more customer-oriented.
D. Work is carried out using a process-oriented approach.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where can you find an overview of all IT services?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Service Catalog
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Window
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which process or function ensures that change proposals are submitted with the aim of removing
errors within the IT infrastructure?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Desk
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is produced when Problem Management identifies the cause of a Problem and a workaround?
A. a Request for Change
B. a resolved Problem
C. a Known Error
D. one or more resolved incidents
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which item is required in the Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a Change?
A. whether the Change has achieved the intended goal
B. whether the CI registration in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is up-to-date
C. whether the Management of the IT department is satisfied with the implementation of the Change
D. to which Configuration Items (CIs) the Change relates
Answer:A

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NO.9 How does Problem Management differ from Incident Management?
A. Incident Management focuses on registration and Problem Management does not.
B. Problem Management focuses on restoration of service and Incident Management focuses on finding
the cause.
C. Incident Management focuses on restoration of service and Problem Management focuses on finding
the cause.
D. Problem Management generates reports and Incident Management does not.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is not regarded as an incident?
A. a complaint about the service of the Service Desk
B. a standard request for change
C. a report of a breakdown
D. a question about how an application works
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which information does Financial Management for IT Services extract from the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)?
A. which equipment is being used by whom
B. where the equipment has been set up
C. which software version is being used
D. which equipment is causing incidents
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which of the following processes provides Problem Management with reports about the IT
infrastructure?
A. Financial Management for IT Services
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

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NO.13 After a change, who is responsible for ensuring that security measures maintain the security level?
A. the Board of Management
B. the Change Manager
C. the Release Manager
D. the Security Manager
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which process includes developing a recovery plan?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Problem Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Availability Management
Answer:A

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NO.15 Managing risk is an essential part of which processes?
A. Problem Management and Capacity Management
B. Availability Management and Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services
D. IT Service Continuity Management and Availability Management
Answer: D

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NO.16 What does the term "Serviceability" refer to?
A. contracts between external suppliers and the customer
B. contracts between external suppliers of services and the IT department
C. contracts between internal IT departments
D. contracts between IT management and the customer
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following is Availability Management responsible for?
A. ensuring the reliability of components will carry out a required function under certain conditions over a
certain period
B. managing the negotiations with the customer with regard to availability
C. Demand Management
D. delivering information on Service Levels to clients to determine the availability percentage
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which Change Management activity indicates the priority and category of an accepted Request for
Change (RFC)?
A. classification
B. coordination
C. registration
D. scheduling
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which aspect is important when registering security incidents?
A. the person who reported the incident
B. the applicable disciplinary measures
C. qualified Service Desk employees
D. recognizing the event as a security incident
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which process provides components of the IT infrastructure with a unique and systematic name
(designation)?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ISO20KF
Exam Name: EXIN (ISO / IEC 20000 Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which statement below is not a purpose of Supplier Management procedures?
A. That business transactions between all parties are recorded
B. That information on the performance of all suppliers can be observed and acted upon
C. That it is made clear that the supplier cannot subcontract part of the delivered services to the Service
Provider
D. That the suppliers understand their obligation to the Service Provider
Answer: C

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NO.2 Who conducts the "first party audit"?
A. An external independent organization
B. Customers of the IT Service Management organization
C. Other persons on behalf of the Customer
D. The IT Service Management organization itself
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which service changes should be documented in change records?
A. All service changes
B. Formal closure of services
C. Staff recruitment
D. User training
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the aspects listed below is included in ISO/IEC 20000?
A. Customer communication
B. Employee motivation
C. Social responsibility
D. Standard products
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered
certification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently
audited before it is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is accreditation in the context of ISO/IEC 20000?
A. The determination of measurement results using defined procedures on the basis of
documented requirements
B. The evaluation of test results to verify compliance with requirements plus confirmation by the
certification body
C. The notification of approved testing and certification bodies with the relevant authority for publication
D. The official recognition by a third party of organizations involved in testing, inspection and certification
Answer: D

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NO.7 What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?
A. The Service Level Plans
B. The Service Management Plans
C. The SLAs with the other parties
D. The SLAs with the customers
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is a best practice for Capacity Management?
A. A Capacity plan documenting the actual performance and the expected requirements should
be produced at least annually.
B. Decisions about service provision should be based on cost effectiveness comparisons.
C. The resilience of the infrastructure components should be measured and included in the Capacity plan.
D. The Service Catalog should be maintained and kept up-to-date.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following must be included within the Service Management plan?
A. Configuration Item (CI) type
B. Information security controls
C. Return to normal working
D. Tools as appropriate to support the processes
Answer: D

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NO.10 An objective of Capacity Management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient
Capacity to meet the current and future agreed demands of the Customer's business needs. What
document is produced to support this objective?
A. Availability Plan
B. Business Resource Plan
C. Capacity Plan
D. Service Management Plan
Answer: C

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NO.11 Availability and Service Continuity Plans need to be developed and reviewed periodically to ensure
that requirements are met as agreed in all circumstances, from normal operations through to a major loss
of service. What is the minimum level of frequency with which these Plans should be developed and
reviewed?
A. At every change to the business environment
B. At least annually
C. At least bi-annually
D. In accordance with the business needs
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the objective of a Management System?
A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of services
B. To ensure that Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are defined for all IT services
C. To ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed
cost and services quality
D. To provide the policies and the framework that is needed for the effective management and
implementation of all IT services
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. Channeling data to Problem Management
B. Ensuring the process is running effectively and efficiently
C. Following up on Incidents
D. Setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?
A. Looking at Security Plans
B. Looking at the cause of Incidents
C. Looking at the Change Plan
D. Looking at the Release Strategy
Answer: B

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NO.15 When a new service is being planned, Service Level Management needs to ensure that existing
performance levels of other IT services will not be unduly impacted. From which process will Service
Level Management require input?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. IT Service Continuity Management
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Change Management is the most important of the Control processes.
B. Release Management shall be implemented only after the processes Change Management and
Configuration Management have become mature.
C. Release Management, Change Management and Configuration Management are Control processes.
D. There shall be an integrated approach to Change and Configuration Management planning.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the objective of Service Level Management?
A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of service
B. To ensure a sufficient amount of Capacity has been designated in order to achieve agreed service
levels
C. To ensure that agreed service Availabilitycommittments to customers can be met in all
circumstances
D. To establish and maintain good relationships with Customers
Answer: A

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NO.18 The Service Provider should check that the Service Management objectives and the plan are being
achieved. Which of the following items is not measured as part of this monitoring, measuring or review?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Major non-conformities
C. Problems
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is mandatory to define in the Incident Management procedures?
A. The escalation of Incidents
B. The implementation of emergency Changes
C. The recording of deficiencies in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. The recording of Problems
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the added value of a service being delivered?
A. You can specifically define the service by means of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. You do not have the ownership of specific costs and risks in producing the service.
C. You do not have to invest in a process to control it.
D. The outcomes have a lower total cost of ownership than when the value is produced within the
customer organization.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-111
Exam Name: EXIN (Green IT Citizen)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What does sustainable development mean.?
A.To create a balance between the demand for timber and the maintenance of the health and biodiversity
of the forests
B.To make use of renewable energy in order to reduce greenhouse gas effects
C.To meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of the future generations to meet
their own needs
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is environmental responsibility about?
A.Protecting the health, balance and diversity of human and natural resources
B.The need to consider the well being of the environment
C.Both
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which puts IT in an excellent position to contribute to a sustainable world?
A.IT is not a big consumer of electricity.
B.IT does not create a lot of waste.
C.IT can help other industries to work more efficiently.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does influence the cost of electricity?
1. The cost of fuel and capital
2. The cost of transmission and local distribution
3. Regulation
A.All of the above
B.only 1
C.only 1 and 2
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which IT alternative(s) can help cut down travel expenses?
A.Electronics documents
B.Telepresence
C.Virtualization
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ITSM20F
Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000 (ITSM20F.EN))
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Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

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NO.2 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.3 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

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NO.6 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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NO.7 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.8 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.9 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

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NO.10 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-118
Exam Name: EXIN (Green IT Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme? a.Alienation of key
staff. b.Additional unplanned costs. c.Perceived lack of benefits. d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green
IT programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme? a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers. c.Company shareholders. d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling?
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

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NO.6 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets
green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an
organisation? Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value
of green IT? a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact. b.Redefine their business
strategy to include green initiatives. c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message. d.Provide
a green discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-670
Exam Name: EMC (Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

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NO.5 Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: D

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NO.6 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.10 What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?
Select the best response.
A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classes
B. Live instructor-led, web-based classes
C. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning
D. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customers
E. Lists of training-partner class offerings
Answer: C

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NO.11 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

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NO.12 On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs,
yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Joint Marketing Fund
D. Cisco Discovery
E. Steps to Success
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

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NO.18 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to
corporate resources?
Select the best response.
A. VPN-enabled routers
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

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