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Exam Code: 000-M76
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management Server Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 SDP on or off is configured in which of the following:
A. configelement table
B. SDP table
C. External Rule
D. Suspect table
Answer: A

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NO.2 If SDP finds a suspect duplicate party, you may need to use the Data Stewardship feature functionality
to:.?
A. Search and inquire for parties marked as suspect duplicates
B. Collapse parties together
C. Split parties apart
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is multiform master data management?
A. Manages master data across multiple data domains
B. Manages master data across multiple data domains, provides analytical functions like a data
warehouse
C. Manages master data across multiple data domains, provides operational, collaborative, and analytical
functions
D. Focuses deeply on a single data domain; can manage master data across multiple domains when
needed; data is operational
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which feature is used to update attribute values in party demographics native XML?
A. UPDATE SQL ?entire XML is replaced
B. XPATH ?specific XML value is updated
C. Spec version is updated
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which file defines the dtd snippet for the new attributes in data extension?
A. tcrmRequest_extension.dtd
B. myTCRM.dtd
C. tCRMResponse.dtd
D. DWLAdminrequest_extension.dtd
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M60
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Symphony Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Jane is new to Lotus Symphony and she wants to know what are the advantages of using Mail Merge.
Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of Mail Merge.?
A. You can send attachments as PDF, not just ODF.
B. You can send out batches of letters that merge fields from a data source.
C. You can use Java API to execute mail merge operation in the background.
D. You can select a data source and merge its fields into a new document.
Answer: C

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NO.2 DataPilot table consists of which 4 areas?
A. Page area, Title area, Data area and Detail area
B. Row area, Column area, Data area and Page area
C. Title area, Row area, Column area and Data area
D. Top area, Bottom area, Left area and Right area
Answer: B

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NO.3 The purpose of Symphony Java API is ___________.
A. to have a standardize way of utilizing functionality of Symphony from within your Symphony
applications.
B. to display Java Server Pages in Symphony.
C. to allow Java application to run from within Symphony.
D. to support Javascript scripting language just like a web browser.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which APIs does Symphony Presentation Object Model provide?
A. APIs to open, save and close presentation
B. APIs to save presentation to Lotus Notes database
C. APIs to convert presentation to Microsoft PowerPoint format
D. APIs to convert presentation to XML format
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is one of the advantages of Symphony being built on top of Expeditor?
A. It allows you to create artificial intelligence applications.
B. It allows you to write .NET applications and integrate them with documents.
C. It allows you to synchronize every character of a document with a server.
D. It allows you to embed business productivity tooling in line of business workflow and vice-versa.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: COG-385
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cogonos TM1 Master 385 exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which three tm1s.cfg parameters must be unique to run two TM1 servers on the same production
server? (Choose three.)
A. ServerName
B. DataBaseDirectory
C. ClientMessagePortNumber
D. AdminHost
E. PortNumber
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.A client using TM1 Web, where the users are making a significant number of
changes, is experiencing sporadic delays during data entry. A snapshot of thread activity from TM1Top
was taken during a busy period as shown in the exhibit.Which proposed model/application change should
have a positive effect on this application's performance?
A. Make sure all dimension subsets are no more than 80 members long.
B. Defragment the TM1 server data directory hard drive.
C. Introduce use of Personal Workspace Writeback mode.
D. Introduce use of BatchUpdateStart() and BatchUpdateFinishWait().
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two logging parameters can be used to control how much disk space the log files consume?
(Choose two.)
A. log4j.appender.S1.MemorySize
B. log4j.appender.S1.MaxFileSize
C. log4j.appender.S1.MaxBackupIndex
D. log4j.logger.TM1.MultipleFiles
Answer: B, C

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NO.4 An object needs to be locked in which lock mode before modifications can begin on that object?
A. Read (R)
B. Intent Exclusive (IX)
C. ReadOnly (RO)
D. Write (W)
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your TM1 server takes over one hour to start up. You want to speed up the start up time. You have a
multi-CPU production server and the cube rules in your TM1 application does not contain any conditional
feeders.Which tm1s.cfg parameter would you choose to help speed up the TM1 server start up time?
A. CalculationThresholdForStorage
B. AllowSeparateNandCRules
C. MaximumCubeLoadThreads
D. CheckFeedersMaximumCells
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-568
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which three parameters are needed when configuring the J2EE Collector for Oracle? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Home
B.Application Server Hostname
C.Application Server IP Address
D.Application Server Control Password
E.Application Server Control Host Name
F.Application Server Control User Name
Answer:DEF

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NO.2 Which components in the Managing Server should be increased when over 5 million transactions are
being stored daily for historical analysis?
A.Archive Agents
B.Message Dispatchers
C.Data Warehouse Agents
D.IBM Tivoli Monitoring Databases
Answer:A

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NO.3 Using the memory option Memory Leak Diagnosis, what is the most efficient way to determine if an
application has a memory leak in a test environment?
A.Run a continual steady load for the suspected application. Review the % Growth field to determine
which object is the leak.
B.Run a continual steady load for the suspected application. Review the # of Objects Surviving Last GC to
determine which object is the leak.
C.Run a steady load for the suspected application for a given time. Stop the application. After several GC
cycles, review the % Growth field to determine which object is the leak.
D.Run a steady load for the suspected application for a given time. Stop the application. After several GC
cycles, review the # of Objects Surviving Last GC field to determine which object is the leak.
Answer:D

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NO.4 What is the attribute group name for the WebSphere Agent Events?
A.KYNAPP
B.KYNPREV
C.KYNCONTNR
D.KYNLOGANAL
Answer:B

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NO.5 The IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Data Collector log
files indicate that a problem exists with active resources consumption of a JVM. What should the
administrator do next?
A.use DEBUG in cynlogging.properties and a restart is necessary
B.use LOGGING in cynlogging.properties and a restart is necessary
C.use DEBUG in cynlogging.properties and a restart is not necessary
D.use LOGGING in cynlogging.properties and a restart is not necessary
Answer:A

IBM questions   000-568   000-568

NO.6 What must be installed in order for a customer to use IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for
Application Diagnostics V7.1 (ITCAM for AD) to perform deep-dive monitoring for their WebSphere
Applications?
A.ITCAM for AD Agent for WebSphere Applications
B.ITCAM for AD Data Collector for WebSphere Applications
C.ITCAM for AD Extended Agent for WebSphere Application
D.ITCAM for AD Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent for WebSphere Applications
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer is currently using MS SQL server as their database server. The customer is planning to
implement IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 (ITCAM for AD).
What is the database requirement?
A.A special ITCAM for AD V7.1 patch must be applied to support MS SQL server.
B.A particular MS SQL server patch must be applied to be used as an ITCAM for AD database.
C.DB2 comes with the ITCAM for AD V7.1 software and can be installed locally on the Managing Server
system.
D.Larger storage space is needed on the ITCAM for AD V7.1 Managing Server so it can be activated and
use the ITCAM for AD internal database with a slight sacrifice of performance.
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which level of monitoring is required to use the Memory Leak Diagnosis Page?
A.Level 1
B.Level 2
C.Level 2+
D.Level 3
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which two commands initiate the configuration process of IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager
for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Agent for WebSphere Applications on UNIX/Linux? (Choose two.)
A.tacmd manage
B.itmcmd manage
C.tmcmd agent -C was
D.itmcmd config -A yn
E.tacmd agentConfig yj
Answer:BD

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NO.10 Which statement is true regarding configuration of monitoring of a WebSphere Application Server
running on an IBM i 6.1 POWER System using IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application
Diagnostics V7.1?
A.Data Collector (DC) must be installed on IBM i machine and Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent (TEMA)
on the remote host
B.TEMA must be installed on IBM i and DC on the remote host
C.both TEMA and DC must be installed on the IBM i system
D.TEMA and DC must be installed on the remote host
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which parameter should be modified if the memory consumption of the Data Collector is problematic?
A.memory.limit
B.internal.memory.limit
C.dc_collector_mem_limit
D.datacollector.memory.limit
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which two parameters are needed when configuring the J2EE Data Collector for JSAS on iPlanet
Application Server (IAS)? (Choose two.)
A.SJSAS Domain Admin Server Listen Home
B.Sun Java System Application Server Home
C.Sun Java System Application Server Version
D.SJSAS Domain Admin Server Listen Address
E.Sun Java System Application Server Operating System
Answer:BC

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NO.13 A customer has a large WebSphere environment which requires high availability fail-over for the
managing server. Which architecture should be used?
A.a single managing server
B.split managing server components into multi servers
C.a Hub Monitoring Server with two remote managing servers
D.two IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics management regions with
two-way event forwarding between these two regions
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which three Java Runtime Environments can be used for IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager
for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Data Collectors? (Choose three.)
A.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V7
B.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V1.4.2
C.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V6.0/1.6
D.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V1.3 and above
E.IBM SDK for Multiplatforms Java 2 Technology Edition V1.4.2 SR1
F.IBM SDK for Multiplatforms Java 2 Technology Edition V1.3 and above
Answer:BCE

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NO.15 When viewing a stack trace in the Managing Server Visualization Engine, where is the method found
which is causing the slow down in performance?
A.at the top of the trace
B.on page 2 of the trace
C.at the bottom of the trace
D.on the last page of the trace
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which two TERM options are supported during the installation of IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager?
(Choose two.)
A.tty
B.ansi
C.vt200
D.xterm
E.signal
Answer:BD

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NO.17 What is the attribute group name for the Apache Web Servers called?
A.KYJDATAS attribute group
B.KHTDATAS attribute group
C.KYNAPSRV attribute group
D.KHTAWEBSR attribute group
Answer:D

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NO.18 The IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Data Collector has
been enhanced with additional diagnostic and tracing capabilities for analyzing the integrity of request
data. This allows tracing and error detection to be turned on and off dynamically without having to restart
the monitored WebSphere Application Server. How is this capability enabled?
A.add an entry in the cyn-cclog.properties
B.add an entry in the cynlogging.properties file
C.run a command via the WebSphere wsadmin facility
D.run the cyn_tran_collect script on the Data Collector host
Answer:C

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NO.19 When configuring IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Agent for
WebSphere Applications Data Collector, which two types of components can be selected to monitor?
(Choose two.)
A.WebSphere CIS Server
B.WebSphere Data Server
C.WebSphere HTTP Server
D.WebSphere Process Server
E.WebSphere Application Server
Answer:DE

IBM   000-568   000-568

NO.20 How is IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Managing Server
started and stopped on UNIX?
A.ms-start.sh, ms-stop.sh
B.am-start.sh, am-stop.sh
C.am-ctl.sh start, am-ctl.sh stop
D.ms-ctl.sh start, ms-ctl.sh stop
Answer:B

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Exam Code: COG-642
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Scorecard Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 An administrator attempted to transfer metric values from the staging area into the metric store.
However, not all of the metrics were populated with expected values. In which table can the administrator
locate the rejected rows for review, correction, and reloading?
A. KPI_VALUE_STAGE_REJECTS
B. OBJECT_STAGE_REJECTS
C. METRIC_TYPE_STAGE_REJECTS
D. OBJECT_NOTE_STAGE_REJECTS
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which tile extension must be used on the tab-delimited file that defines relationships between objects?
A. .cmo
B. .cmr
C. .cml
D. .cmm
Answer: C

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NO.3 How would the scorecard developer delete the Marketing scorecard and move its children under the
Corporate scorecard.?
A. In the user interface, drag the children to the Corporate scorecard and then delete the Marketing
scorecard.
B. In the user interface, mark the Marketing scorecard for deletion, drag the Corporate scorecard and run
re-calculate metrics derived values.
C. In the .cmo file, re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
D. In the .cmdfile. re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A user needs to update target values ONLY for:
Americas Return quantity %
Americas Return quantity % Defective product
Americas Return quantity % Incomplete product
What minimum permissions MUST be applied on the objects for that user?
A. Write target values permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor
scorecards.
B. Write permissions to the three metrics and traverse permissions to all ancestor scorecards.
C. Write target values permissions to the three metrics and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
D. Write permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about staging tables?
A. Staging tables map to Data ManagerTables
B. Staging tables map to tab-delimited files
C. Staging tables map to tables in the data warehouse
D. Staging tables map to tables in the content store
Answer: B

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NO.6 A tab-delimited file with a cmo extension can be used to create what type of object?
A. Scorecards
B. Metric types
C. Calendar levels
D. Permissions
Answer: A

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NO.7 What must be done to load the data successfully into Metric Studio using structured query language
(SQL) scripts?
A. Perform the task Recalculate metric store derived values after each script execution.
B. Perform the task Import data from files into staging area after each script execution
C. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the content store.
D. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the staging tables
Answer: D

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NO.8 What directory contains log files needed to troubleshoot problems importing data?
A. installation_location/logs/MetricStorelnstall
B. installation_location/logs/MetricMaintenance
C. installation_location/logs/MetricUpgradePackage
D. installation_location/logs/MetricStoreUpgrade
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which activities can only be performed by the Metric Store Administrator?
A. Set policies.
B. Create the root scorecard.
C. Run import and export options.
D. Add links to a CognosBI report.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A tab-delimited file with a cmm extension contains what type of objects?
A. Metrics
B. Metric types
C. Metric values
D. Import sources
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-422
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Solution Dev - InfoSphere QualityStage v8.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 124 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which statement represents the survivorship rule execution order?
A. Order of the rules is irrelevant.
B. The last rule takes precedence.
C. The first rule takes precedence.
D. The Survive stage will sort and order the rules.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following rule sets are NOT delivered with QualityStage.?
A. Date processing
B. Country processing
C. Address processing
D. Credit card processing
Answer: D

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NO.3 What 4 files are part of the QualityStage rule set?
A. IPO, ITO, UCL, UTO
B. IPO, PTO, UPD, UTD
C. PRS, PTO, ITO, OVR
D. PRC, TBL, PTO, OVR
Answer: A

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NO.4 What two graphical reports are produced by an Investigate stage? (Choose two)
A. Word Pattern Report
B. Column Pattern Report
C. Frequency Word Report
D. Frequency Pattern Report
E. Invalid Token Frequency Report
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 If an address starting with the word 'Ignore' is being stored in a variable named temp and you want to
place this value in a field called AdditionalAddress. Which Pattern Action code would accomplish this?
A. COPY temp (0:5) {AdditionalAddress}
B. COPY temp (1:6) {AdditionalAddress}
C. COPY temp (IGNORE) {AdditionalAddress}
D. COPY temp [-IGNORE] {AdditionalAddress}
Answer: B

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NO.6 If rule changes are required to a QualityStage Standardization rule set, which two of the following are
the correct steps to implement in your environment? (Choose two)
A. Changes are rarely required in development of an application
B. Rule sets can not be changed in the QualityStage environment
C. Copy the rule set, rename it then edit the newly created rule set
D. Edit the default rule set delivered with the product then save changes
E. Use the pattern override section to make changes
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 Investigation shows that city name, state abbreviation, and postal code fields all contain null values.
The client is concerned that they might have a data quality issue. Which two investigation types would you
use to determine the magnitude of the problem? (Choose two)
A. Character Discrete with all three fields.
B. Word Investigation using USAREA rule set.
C. Character Concatenate with all three fields.
D. Word Investigation using USADDR rule set.
E. Character Concatenate with all three fields and X mask.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 When creating a copy of an existing rule set what components are copied?
A. Pattern action, classification, dictionary
B. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, lookup tables
C. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, override tables
D. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, override tables, lookup tables
Answer: C

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NO.9 What do you do if you need to only back-up a rule set?
A. Highlight the rule set ET?and exportHighlight the rule set ?ET?and export
B. Highlight the rule set ET?and provision allHighlight the rule set ?ET?and provision all
C. Highlight all rule set components and export
D. Export the job with a standardization stage that includes the rule set and choose the nclude dependent
items?Export the job with a standardization stage that includes the rule set and choose the ?nclude
dependent items
Answer: C

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NO.10 After standardization, which investigation stage would best help determine the amount of work
required to improve the standardize process of client name data?
A. Word investigation of primary name field
B. Character Discrete investigation of source client name fields
C. Character Concatenate investigations of Input Pattern and source client name fields
D. Character Concatenate investigations of the Unhandled Pattern and source name fields
Answer: D

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NO.11 If your input data contains only the value "DO NOT USE" consistently in the Name field, which type of
domain-specific object would best be used to override this condition?
A. USNAME.IPO
B. USNAME.ITO
C. USPREP.UTO
D. USPREP.UFO
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is NOT a goal for re-engineering data?
A. Enrich data
B. Prevent source data quality issues
C. Create multiple views of business entities
D. Identify hidden attributes from free-form fields
Answer: B

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NO.13 What two types of data issues generally occur within enterprise data stores? (Choose two)
A. Data myopia
B. Referential Integrity
C. Information standards applied
D. Consistency across all tables
E. Data surprises in individual fields
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 Which two of the following methods are possible ways for selecting the "best" candidate for surviving a
field value? (Choose two)
A. Longest
B. Average match score
C. Reference table lookup
D. Most frequently occurring
E. Least frequently occurring
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which two statements describe the importance of standardizing data? (Choose two)
A. Apply a consistent length.
B. Prepare data for matching
C. Apply a consistent data type.
D. Make data a consistent language.
E. Apply a consistent representation.
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 You are required to analyze source system data with an Investigate stage. Which two functions can
this stage perform? (Choose two)
A. Classifying tokens
B. Identifying duplicates
C. Changing invalid data
D. Creating reference tables
E. Creating pattern distributions
Answer: A,E

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NO.17 How many operands are present in the following Pattern Action language pattern?

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Exam Code: 000-183
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Mesage Broker V7.0, Solution Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A developer needs to create an asynchronous messaging application to connect to a third party which
uses a programming interface known as Message Queue Interface (MQI).Which transport protocol should
the developer use?
A.MQ
B.FTP
C.JMS
D.XMS
Answer: A

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NO.2 A developer needs to generate a monotonically increasing sequence number for each message in a
given message flow.What is the MOST efficient way to achieve this?
A.Use the Create Sequence operator of ESQL.
B.Use the Generate Sequence operator of Java.
C.Use the Sequence function of an external database.
D.Use the Sequence node of WebSphere Message Broker.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When a message is received by an Input node in a message flow, the message assembly is
created.Which tree or trees are populated when an error free message is received by a FileInput node?
A.The Message tree only.
B.The Message tree and Environment tree.
C.The Message tree and LocalEnvironment tree.
D.The Message tree, Environment tree, LocalEnvironment tree, and ExceptionList tree.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Consider the following ESQL code snippet from a Compute node.
What is the value of OutputRoot.XMLNSC?
A.NULL
B.<Winner/>
C.<Winner Name="Robert"/>
D.<Winner><Name>Rocky</Name></Winner>
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which one of the following advantages does the Enterprise Service Bus deliver over traditional
point-to-point solutions?
A.Scalability
B.Adaptability
C.Redundancy
D.Performance
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer needs to dynamically choose which web service URL to call from a WSDL in the
WebSphere Service Registry and Repository (WSRR), based on a company acronym in the input
message received by Message Broker.Which node should the solution developer choose when
implementing this type of retrieval operation?
A.EndpointLookup
B.RegistryLookup
C.EndpointRetrieval
D.DatabaseRetrieval
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company has decided to use WebSphere Message Broker to integrate several legacy systems which
generate batch files into the company WebSphere MQ backbone.What is the quickest way the developers
can accomplish this task?
A.Build a user defined node.
B.Create a user defined extension.
C.Create a program that processes the batch files into WebSphere MQ messages and then send the
messages to WebSphere Message Broker for processing.
D.Use the Record Distribution to WebSphere MQ one-way built-in pattern.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which Message Broker artifact type is not analyzed by Impact Analysis?
A..esql
B..mset
C..msgmap
D..msgflow
Answer: B

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NO.9 A developer has a message flow that consists of an MQInput node, Compute node and MQOutput
node.The message is parsed by the XMLNSC domain.The Compute node will extract the name and age
of each player, then send them onto the register players application to have the team registered.The input
message that the Compute node will be processing is shown below.
What MUST be done to access the information from the first player?
A.Set OutputRoot.XMLNSC.RegPlayer.Player[NextCount] = InputBody.Body.Player[1]
B.Set OutputRoot.XMLNSC.RegPlayer.Player[NextCount] = InputBody.DetailedMsg.Body.Player[1]
C.Set OutputRoot.XMLNSC.RegPlayer.Player[NextCount] = InputRoot.DetailedMsg.Body.Player[0]C.Set
OutputRoot.XMLNSC.RegPlayer.Player[NextCount] = InputRoot.DetailedMsg.Body.Player[0]
D.Set OutputRoot.XMLNSC.RegPlayer.Player[NextCount] = InputRoot.DetailedMsg.Body.Player[1]D.Set
OutputRoot.XMLNSC.RegPlayer.Player[NextCount] = InputRoot.DetailedMsg.Body.Player[1]
Answer: B

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NO.10 A message flow reads a file, record by record.Based on the content of each record, it will be propagated
to one or more output queues.The File Input node has the Transaction property set to yes and all output
nodes are configured to be Automatic node has the transaction property set to yes and all output nodes
are configured to be automatic In the event that flow execution is interrupted by a hardware failure, which
one of the following is true?
A.Processing will resume at the beginning of the file; previously created messages will be duplicated.
B.Processing will resume at the beginning of the file; previously created messages will be backed out.
C.Processing of the file resumes at the last checkpoint; any extraneous messages will have been rolled
back.
D.The file will be deleted or archived depending on the setting of the File Input node; unprocessed
records will be missing from the output.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A developer needs to call a request/response web service from a message flow.Knowing response
messages may not arrive in the same order as the requests, what set of processing nodes will
automatically set the required WS-Addressing standard that assures message correlation?
A.SOAPInput and SOAPReply
B.SOAPExtract and SOAPReply
C.SOAPRequest and SOAPReply
D.SOAPAsyncRequest and SOAPAsyncResponse
Answer: D

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NO.12 The solution developer has been informed by the SAP team that the userid and password for the SAP
test environment needs to be replace
D.What is the EASIEST way to reconfigure userid and password for an SAP EIS adapter?
A.Modify the deployment descriptor in the affected bar files and redeploy them to all required locations.
B.Use the following command against the affected broker(s): mqsisetdbparms <brokername> -n
eis::<adaptername> -u <username> -p <password>
C.Use the following command against the affected broker(s): mqsichangeproperties <brokername> -c
eis::<adaptername> -o SAP -u <username> -p <password>
D.Rerun the Adapter Connection Wizard for the component, enter the updated values and redeploy the
component to all required locations.
Answer: B

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NO.13 The following flow processes data from an input queue and builds a file.A Timeout Notification node
has been configured to send a message to the Finish File ¯ s t e r m i na l o f t he ile Output node once every
hour.As a result, a file named hourly Record Collection.dat will be written to theFinish File terminal of the
File Output node once every hour.As a result, a file named hourly Record Collection.dat?will be written to
the designated destination directory.
It is expected the previous file will be removed before the next file is written in its place.If this has not
happened, what are the options available to the solution developer on the File Output node?
A.Overwrite (replace) the old file or append to the old file.
B.Overwrite (replace) the old file or rename the old file in place by adding a timestamp or throw an
exception.
C.Overwrite (replace) the old file or archive the old file with or without a time stamp appended to the file
name or throw an exception.
D.Overwrite (replace) the old file or append to the old file or archive the old file (with or without a time
stamp appended to the file name.)
Answer: C

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NO.14 A solution developer needs to help a software company to decide whether to use HTTP nodes or
SOAP nodes in developing web services.Which of the following benefits would the solution developer use
in support of SOAP nodes over HTTP nodes?
A.Support for a broker wide listener.
B.Support for runtime validation against WSDL.
C.Support for other web service standards, like REST and XML-RPC.
D.Support for external Web servlet container to provide listener support for a larger number of concurrent
sessions.E.Automatic processing of Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM).
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 In a message flow, a developer needs to enrich an employee's record with information from a
database.Consider this input message.
Which of the ESQL statements in the response options will produce the following output message?
A.SET OutputRoot.XMLNSC.Employee.Name[] = (SELECT ITEM E.EmpName from Database.Employee
as E where E.EmpNumber = InputBody.Employee.Number);
B.SET OutputRoot.XMLNSC.Employee.Name[] = (SELECT E.EmpName AS Name from
Database.Employee as E where E.EmpNumber = InputBody.Employee.Number);
C.SET OutputRoot.XMLNSC.Employee = THE(SELECT E.EmpName from Database.Employee as E
where E.EmpNumber = InputBody.Employee.Number);
D.SET OutputRoot.XMLNSC.Employee = THE(SELECT ITEM E.EmpName AS Name from
Database.Employee as E where E.EmpNumber = InputBody.Employee.Number);
Answer: A

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NO.16 A developer is tasked with designing a message flow, utilizing an XSLTransform node.Which location is
searched first by the broker, to determine the name of the style sheet to use?
A.The LocalEnvironment.
B.The BAR file overrides.
C.The XSLTransform node properties.
D.Inside the message XML data.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Consider the following two implementations of a request/response pattern.1) Asynchronous with a
separate flow for the response logic using an MQInput node
2)
Synchronous, completing the round trip in the same flow pulling the response message with an MQGet
node
Which of the following is FALSE?
A.Multiple flow instances will not help throughput in either implementation.
B.The synchronous implementation will require more memory, especially in scenarios with large
messages and high throughput requirements.
C.Given sufficient resources, the synchronous implementation will perform better in cases where large
amounts of data (i

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Exam Code: 000-617
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified System Admin - DB2 10 System Admin for z/OS)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 126 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You have just defined the profile monitoring tables and related indexes using the DSNTIJSG job in the
SDSNSAMP library. In order to monitor the number of remote threads and connections you must insert
rows into the SYSIBM.DSN_PROFILE_TABLE and SYSIBM.DSN_PROFILE_ATTRIBUTES tables to
specify the monitoring functions to be used.
What is the next step in this process?
A. Issue the -START PROFILE command.
B. Issue the -DISPLAY THREAD command.
C. Issue the -START TRACE (MONITOR) command.
D. No further steps are needed. DB2 will automatically begin monitoring those DB2 threads identified in
the monitoring profile.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does the command -ALTER GROUPBUFFERPOOL(GBP1) RATIO(5.6) do?
A. Changes the ratio of directory entries to the local cache entries (LCE).
B. Changes the desired ratio of the number of lock entries to the number of data pages in the group buffer
pool.
C. Changes the desired ratio of the number of directory entries to the number of data pages in the group
buffer pool.
D. Changes the desired number of the data pages cast out to those that remain in the group buffer pool
when the group buffer pool checkpoint occurs.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The standard audit trace has limitations. Which statement is true?
A. You can audit the catalog tables.
B. You can audit every access to a table.
C. You can audit all utilities including DSN1.... ones.
D. You can start a specific audit trace at DB2 startup.
Answer: D

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NO.4 To satisfy a requirement to track and report on the administrative changes made by users with system
DBADM authority, which DB2 catalog table must be modified to enable this requirement.?
A. SYSIBM.SYSDBAUTH
B. SYSIBM.SYSRESAUTH
C. SYSIBM.SYSUSERAUTH
D. SYSIBM.SYSAUDITPOLICIES
Answer: D

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NO.5 When a data sharing member fails, what is the final state of the connections to the DB2 lock structure
in the coupling facility?
A. It is finally marked as FAILING.
B. It is immediately marked as FAILED PERSISTENT for the failing member.
C. It is marked as FAILING and then finally changed to FAILED PERSISTENT upon receiving
DiscFailCon from all members.
D. It is marked as FAILED PERSISTENT and then finally changed to FAILING upon receiving
DiscFailCon from all members.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In a production DB2 subsystem, the display of database DBFW8401 shows that pages have been
added to the LPL. The indexes for the database have the COPY NO attribute.
Which utility is used to remove these pages from the LPL status?
A. REPAIR
B. RECOVER
C. CHECK INDEX
D. REBUILD INDEX
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the process to automatically start an audit policy at DB2 startup?
A. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameters AUDITST = *
B. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameter AUDITST = YES
C. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameter TRACSTR = YES
D. UPDATE SYSIBM.SYSAUDITPOLICIES SET DB2START=Y for the row of the audit policy to be auto
started.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What process does the RESTORE SYSTEM utility NOT perform?
A. Restores logs from the log copy pool.
B. Applies logs to the data to a point in time.
C. Restores data from the database copy pool.
D. Applies only logs to the data if LOGONLY is specified.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the dynamic statement cache?
A. The dynamic statement cache resides in an above-the-bar pool.
B. Performance problems can occur if the dynamic statement cache is too small.
C. The REOPT(VARS) bind option is necessary in order to store the access path for a dynamic SQL
statement in the dynamic statement cache.
D. When updating statistics for an object manually, you need to invalidate statements in the dynamic
statement cache that refer to this object using RUNSTATS REPORT NO UPDATE NONE against the
object.
Answer: C

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NO.10 DB2 10 enhances the profile table monitoring facility to support the filtering and threshold monitoring for
the number of connections using which categories?
A. All local and DRDA connections.
B. Collection IDs and IP addresses.
C. Role and Authorization Identifiers.
D. Product Identifiers and Package Names.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The DB2 command -SET SYSPARM lets you change subsystem parameters while DB2 is up.
What is the correct syntax for loading a different DSNZPARM load module?
A. -SET SYSPARM LOAD
B. -SET SYSPARM RELOAD
C. -SET SYSPARM(dsnzparm name)
D. -SET SYSPARM LOAD(dsnzparm name)
Answer: D

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NO.12 Assume that you have implemented identity propagation and that the distributed user name is 'MARY'.
You have mapped this user name to the RACF user ID 'DB2USER1'. Which statement is true?
A. 'MARY' is authenticated by RACF.
B. 'DB2USER1' must be defined on the remote system.
C. Remote requests execute with the authority of 'MARY'.
D. Audit records for this transaction contains both RACF user ID 'DB2USER1' and the distributed user
'MARY'.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have implemented hash access on a production table. In order to optimize hash access
performance you need to monitor the storage space utilized by hash access. How would you accomplish
this?
A. View real time statistics for the table.
B. Run RUNSTATS with the UPDATE SPACE option.
C. Issue the -DISPLAY DATABASE(*) SPACENAM(*) USE command.
D. Utilize a monitoring profile using the -DISPLAY PROFILE command.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which directory table space CANNOT be REORGed in DB2 10?
A. DSNDB01.SPT01
B. DSNDB01.SCT02
C. DSNDB01.SYSUTILX
D. DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
Answer: C

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NO.15 In order to separate DB2 security administration duties from DB2 system administration duties, which
step(s) must be performed?
A. Set both SECADM system parameters to an authorization ID and Role.
B. Specify YES to SEPARATE_ SECURITY and set one SYSADM system parameter to an authorization
ID or Role.
C. Specify YES to SEPARATE_ SECURITY and set one SECADM system parameter to an authorization
ID or Role.
D. Specify YES to PROTECT parameter and set one SECADM system parameter to an
authorization ID or Role.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You start your DB2 subsystem and check the messages in the MSTR address space. DB2 issues
message DSNJ120I indicating that it detected unequal timestamps in the BSDSs. What is the required
action to allow DB2 to start successfully?
A. DB2 restart is halted and an open reply lets you use the -RECOVER BSDS command to fix the
problem.
B. Use the VSAM REPRO utility to overwrite the older BSDS with the most recent one and issue START
DB2 again.
C. DB2 shuts down when this problem occurs. You must issue -START DB2 again and DB2 will try to
re-synchronize the BSDSs now.
D. No action is needed. DB2 automatically tries to re-synchronize and continues with the restart if the
re-synchronization was successful.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is NOT required for recovery of the DB2 catalog at a disaster recovery site?
A. All catalog table spaces.
B. IBM defined indexes on the catalog.
C. XML objects for the catalog table spaces.
D. LOB objects for the catalog table spaces.
Answer: C

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NO.18 To cancel any type of thread using a -CANCEL THREAD command what information is needed?
A. The token of the thread to be canceled.
B. The luwid of the thread to be canceled.
C. The connection name of the thread to be canceled.
D. The correlation name of the thread to be canceled.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which limiting attribute CANNOT be included in the definition of a trusted context?
A. A DB2 SSID.
B. An IPv4 address.
C. An IPv6 address.
D. A secure domain name.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which statement describes a DB2 ROLE?
A. A role is a privilege.
B. A role is a USERID.
C. A role is a RACF entity.
D. A role is a database entity.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two areas can configure history retention in order to perform historical analysis and reporting?
(Choose two.)
A. Scan
B. Probe
C. Computers
D. Filesystems
E. Performance Monitors
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 A customer uses the Configure Wizard device to configure new or existing resources so that data is
collected on the configured group. Which resource can be configured with the wizard?
A. In-band Fabric Agent
B. SAN Volume Controller
C. Storage Resource Agent
D. VMWare VI Data Source
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the full default path for finding log files that give information about the success or failure of the
IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) installation on a 32-bit Windows server.?
A. C:\Program Files\TPC\log
B. C:\Program Files\IBM\data\log
C. C:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\log
D. C:\Program Files\IBM\device\log
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 (TPC) installed on Windows 2003 with 8GB
of RAM running IBM DB2 V9.5 Fixpack 5 with 10 Data Agents and 5 Fabric Agents. The customer wants
to utilize the Configure Device Wizard on the newest TPC V4.2 code. Which solution will retain their
current configuration and minimize additional setup time?
A. fresh install of DB2
B. upgrade to TPC V4.2
C. upgrade to TPC V4.2 and migrate Data and Fabric Agents
D. fresh install of TPC V4.2 and deploy Storage Resource Agents
Answer: C

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NO.5 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) is managing DS8000, DS6000, DS5000, DS4000,
DS3000, Element Management Clients, NetApp, Hitachi Data Systems, XIV storage subsystems, and
SAN Volume Controllers. A discovery job is scheduled to run every 6 hours and a probe job is scheduled
to run every 12 hours. Recently the probe job is the only one that has errors. What could be the problem?
A. The probe job failed on CIMOM devices.
B. The probe job is taking more than 12 hours.
C. The discovery job taking more than 6 hours.
D. The probe job is schedule to run indefinitely.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer wants to manage devices in the same manner (storage, fabric, server, or tapes). Which
panel would be displayed in the Configure Device Wizard?
A. Select CIMOM
B. Select Devices
C. Select Device Preference
D. Select Storage Subsystem
Answer: B

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NO.7 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) Server audit logging initiated by the Graphical User
Interface writes to the log file at which location?
A. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\data\log\AuditTrace.log
B. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\device\log\AuditTrace.log
C. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\data\log\auditTPCDataServer.log
D. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\device\log\auditTPCDeviceServer.log
Answer: A

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NO.8 When including profiles in a scan the desired profiles can be highlighted in the Available Profiles list box
and applied to which two selectable sections? (Choose two.)
A. Files
B. Hosts
C. Directories
D. Filesystems
E. Operating System Types
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 In preparing for migration of all IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (TPC) components to the newest
level, the implementing person installed an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup/Archive client on
the TPC Server and configured it to run standard file backups of the local filesystems. What is the best
practice backup method for TPC?
A. online backup using TSM API for Databases to save TPC configuration
B. online backup using the built-in TPC Backup Utility which uses the API to send data to a TSM server
C. offline backup of TPC to TSM without pausing any servers to archive the current state of the TPC
Server
D. offline backup of TPC to TSM with stopping the data, the device servers, and the DB2 database prior to
copying the files
Answer: D

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NO.10 A client wants to migrate 100 data and fabric agents into Storage Resource Agents (SRA). In addition to
command line and installation wizard, what other method can be used for the migration?
A. Administrative Services > Configuration > SRA Upgrades
B. Administrative Services > Configuration > SRA Deployments
C. Administrative Services > Configuration > Migrate Data/Fabric Agent
D. Administrative Services > Data Sources > Data/SRA > Migrate Data/Fabric Agent
Answer: C

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NO.11 What must be done before IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) manages network
attached storage (NAS)?
A. enable SNMP on the NAS filer
B. enable the Storage Resource Agent on the NAS filer
C. mount a file system of the NAS filer to the agent server
D. configure the CIMOM server to be on a trusted domain of the NAS filer
Answer: A

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NO.12 When attempting to log in to the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) Graphical User
Interface (GUI) the user gets an access denied message. What is causing this error?
A. The TPC GUI service is down.
B. The user does not have a valid operating system login ID.
C. The user does not have Administrative Authority on the server.
D. The user has not been added to a mapped role or group within TPC.
Answer: D

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NO.13 The History Aggregator is enabled by default to run every day at 3:00 a.m. Which two historical data
statistics can be used for trend analysis? (Choose two.)
A. disk removal statistics
B. disk capacity statistics
C. file modification statistics
D. file backup time statistics
E. file type space usage statistics
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 Where can a list of all the devices discovered by IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 be
viewed?
A. Reporting > System Reporting
B. System Reports > Disk > SAN Assets (All)
C. System Reports > Fabric > SAN Assets (All)
D. Data Manager > Reporting > Asset Reporting
Answer: C

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NO.15 Given a malfunctioning IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) installation at a customer
site after a network topology reconfiguration, what is the full path to check the TPC configuration files?
A. c:\Program Files\IBM
B. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC
C. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\config
D. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\server\config
Answer: C

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NO.16 How can the storage subsystem's performance be viewed?
A. Data Manager > Reporting > Storage Subsystem Performance
B. Disk Manager > Reporting > Storage Subsystems > Volume to HBA Assignment
C. Topology > Storage, click Topology Settings and add Performance on the Active Overlay settings
D. Topology > Fabrics, click Topology Settings and add Expand All Sections on the Active Overlay
settings
Answer: C

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NO.17 Profiles enable which two capabilities when used in a scan? (Choose two.)
A. ability to gather statistics
B. ability to control which files are scanned
C. ability to control which hosts are scanned
D. ability to control which fabrics are scanned
E. ability to control which disk storage subsystems are scanned
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Which command must be run for IBM DB2 before IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 is
installed in a UNIX environment?
A. ./usr/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
B. . /opt/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
C. . /home/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
D. . /home/sqllib/db2profile/db2inst1
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which task must be completed to fine tune and control which files are scanned during a filesystem scan
and specify exactly which statistical information is gathered?
A. create a custom scan
B. create a custom probe
C. create a custom profile
D. create a custom Storage Resource Agent Group
Answer: C

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NO.20 In provisioning a new storage subsystem, an administrator inadvertently violated a zoning-related
policy. If the zoning-related configuration changes persist in the database, which IBM Tivoli Storage
Productivity Center V4.2 analytics function can be used to detect this policy violation?
A. Storage Optimizer
B. Analytics Validation
C. SAN Policy Manager
D. Configuration Analysis
Answer: D

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